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Saturday, September 14, 2013

Mark Sadowski Responds: Sumner on Stagflation and the Price Level

     Tom Brown holds Sadowski in pretty high regard. l

      "Mike!!! Wow, thanks for the feature article... very very kind of you!!, but now the pressure really is on. Here I was gladly hiding in the shadows... and suddenly you're amplifying my careless taunting of Sadowski! I HOPE he doesn't notice, care, or take you seriously... I'm in no mood to cross out my entire blog just yet! :(""

        http://diaryofarepublicanhater.blogspot.com/2013/09/for-those-who-seek-understanding-on.html

      Well, Tom, I've got news for you-now I've really done it. I went with Mark directly in the comments section of Interfluidity and wrote a piece I challenged him to respond to. 

       http://diaryofarepublicanhater.blogspot.com/2013/09/strange-things-scott-sumner-has-said.html?utm_source=feedburner&utm_medium=feed&utm_campaign=Feed%3A+DiaryOfARepublicanHater+%28Diary+of+a+Republican+Hater%29

       Basically I called out Sumner, so the post really was a challenge for Sadowski to back up his man, which he did. I questioned Sumner on two things:

      1. His definition of stagflation-he defines it as high inflation and low GDP. This sounded wrong to me-and a lot of other people as well. As I understood it, stagflation is high inflation along with high unemployment-thereby frustrating the crude version of the Phillips Curve which believed in a stable tradeoff between unemployment and inflation. Here is Sadowski's response. 

      "As for the meaning of the word “stagflation” I appeal to the history of its origin. On November 17, 1965, Iain Macleod, the spokesman on economic issues for the Conservative Party, warned of the UK’s economic situation in the House of Commons by saying “We now have the worst of both worlds—not just inflation on the one side or stagnation on the other, but both of them together. We have a sort of “stagflation” situation. And history, in modern terms, is indeed being made.”

    "At that time the unemployment rate in the UK was only 1.4%, so it’s obvious he wasn’t talking about the unemployment rate:


     "Moreover, the word “stagnation” refers to a state of inactivity, and in an economic context it carries the connotation of slow growth."

    "When the word came to be applied to the US it may have acquired the additional meaning of relatively high unemployment. But that was not how the word was originally used by Iain Macleod in 1965."

     I didn't buy it. I mean, even if we're certain that Macleod was the first to speak of it, this was not the usage it has come to have. I was sure that this was wrong. However, in looking it up I see that Sumner is actually not wrong. 

    "Stagflation, a portmanteau of stagnation and inflation, is a term used in economics to describe a situation where an inflation rate is high, the economic growth rate slows down, and unemployment remains steadily high. It raises a dilemma for economic policy since actions designed to lower inflation may exacerbate unemployment, and vice versa."

     http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stagflation

     My definition is not wrong either-Wiki has it as having 3 elements: high inflation, low GDP, and unemployment 'remaining steadily high.' However, I was wrong that Sumner was wrong. Maybe it sounded strange to me and a number of others-read the comments section at the time-in this link you will find the link to Sumner's use of the word stagflation.

     http://diaryofarepublicanhater.blogspot.com/2013/09/sumner-vs-waldman-on-great-inflation.html 

     Though he seemed generally surprised that stagflation necessarily included high unemployment as well. 

      "He later defends this statement by pointing to the relatively high levels of unemployment during that decade. I had thought the word ‘stagflation’ meant high inflation plus slow output growth (due to slow growth in AS.) Karl seems to think it means high inflation plus other bad things, like high unemployment."

       So we were all right, but incomplete. 

      2. I also questioned Sumner's claim that in Japan the price level is 100 times as high as in the U.S.-and the South Korean price level is 1000 times as high. Actually this has been something the commentator Greg has brought up. It seems to me that what Sumner is doing is conflating the price level and the exchange rate between the U.S. and Japan-$1 Us dollar gets you almost 100 Japanese yen. Still I think the price level and the exchange rate are two different things. Sadowski comes down on Sumner's side-as he admits it's not a big surprise. Yet he does admit that Sumner at least leaves it ripe for confusion in the way he describes it:

      "Sumner is evidently referring to the nominal exchange rate which is correct from a simple unit of account perspective (e.g. the Korean won is about 1000 to the dollar). Personally I think he should have spent more time clearly explaining what he meant by “price level”.

      So that's the discrepancy. Sumner thinks that what's most important about money is its status as a medium of account (MOA) rather than as a medium of exchange (MOE). Many disagree with him here too, including fellow MMer, Nick Rowe. 

      http://www.themoneyillusion.com/?p=23269

       Marcus Nunes has also written about the MOA-MOE distinction. 

       http://thefaintofheart.wordpress.com/2012/10/31/two-kinds-of-money/

       So on stagflation Sumner wasn't wrong but I wasn't either, exactly. We were both kind of right but incomplete. However, I had implied that he said something ludicrous and clearly this is not true. On the price level issue it seems that it may turn on the distinction between MOA-MOE. Still ,Sadowski does admit that Sumner could have been clearer here. On a MOE basis the statement that the price level is 100 times as high in Japan as in the U.S. would be ludicrous. 

     

25 comments:

  1. So Mike, not only were you amplifying my taunting of Sadowski by reposting it in your articles, but you then repost it in a thread you're having with him! You're dead set on me crossing out my blog, aren't you? ;)

    Actually, it's funny, because Mark did go back and respond to my one occurrence of me "suggesting that he might be mistaken" ... that'd I'd pointed out to you... which you then made sure to point out to him! As usual, he came back with an informative comment which I agreed with... but you'd be proud... I didn't let him get away with over-generalizing about "endogenous people." :D

    http://worthwhile.typepad.com/worthwhile_canadian_initi/2013/08/how-can-you-get-an-economy-into-a-liquidity-trap.html?cid=6a00d83451688169e2019aff6316c6970c#comment-6a00d83451688169e2019aff6316c6970c

    (comment below that one too)

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  2. Yes, I admit that I enjoy fanning the flames. As far as this debate over the price level, it seems as I suggest above to come down to whether you are talking about MOA vs. MOE. I'm interested in Greg's reaction to this.

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    1. Well to me thats a bullshit answer by Mr Sadowski. I gave Sumner about 5 or 6 chances to truly distinguish what he meant, even suggesting at some point that I had been unclear in my question to him. He's just a weasel and doesnt want to admit that some internet troll might have made some Phd look like a fool, which he is if we really believes what he says he does.

      I come down on Toms side in this MOA MOE discussion. I think its pretty useless mostly. MOE is a dollar and MOA is simply price which reflects the number of dollars it takes to acquire that thing with a price. Prices can fluctuate, and I hate to break it to Scott, price fluctuations arent just due to some alteration in the UOA/exchange rate. Monetary authorities can screw with things affecting prices no doubt but those alterations will not lead to restoration of some sort of previous equilibrium (GDP/employment). In the days where your UOE was actually tied to a price of a commodity the UOA/UOE distinction held some validity I think. Not anymore.

      As Cullen stated so well in a recent post, monetarist have simply sibstituted reserves for gold in todays monetary sytem and dont change anything else in their analysis. Its why they are so incompetent at actually formulating coherent policy.

      Looking for inflation in Japan, one must simply look in Japan and compare where they are today relative to 5 or 10 years ago. You dont need to look at dollar parity.

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  3. Regarding this price level vs exchange rate thing... I must be a thicky, because I still don't get it. To me prices are the quantity of the unit of account marked on items, indicating what you should pay for them. I'm not getting your MOA vs MOE business here. I realize people use different meanings for MOA, UOA, and MOE. JP Koning criticizes Sumner for using a non-standard definition... and repeats that again in his most recent post (I write "his" but again I don't actually know if JP is male or female):

    http://jpkoning.blogspot.com/2013/09/separating-functions-of-moneythe-case.html

    So following JP here (and Bill Woolsey), we'd have for the gold standard:

    MOA = gold
    UOA = dollar = 1/35 oz gold
    MOE = reserve notes

    I have the impression that some people (Sumner included?) say that the UOA is literally just the word used (e.g. "dollar" in this case). Woolsey seems to imply that too... whereas JP seems to fold in the definition in terms of the MOA with the UOA.

    So Mike, three questions for you:

    1. If your were Sadowski, how would you "have spent more time clearly explaining what he meant by “price level”."

    2. Do you accept my examples for MOA, UOA, and MOE above?

    3. If you agree w/ 2, then can you explain your problem w/ Sumner's statement using those terms... especially this bit "On a MOE basis the statement that the price level is 100 times as high in Japan as in the U.S. would be ludicrous?"

    Again, price level to me comes right from the equation of exchange MV = PY. That's not QTM, that's a tautology. If you assume V and Y are lumbering along, slowly changing according to some underlying market dynamics, and if you assumed NO STICKINESS whatsoever, then it's clear that changing M changes nothing except P. It's a meaningless change... as if we all woke up tomorrow to find that each of our dollars had been replaced with 100 yen (a separate US variety of yen), and all the prices changed into yen as well (i.e. 100x higher). I'm quite sure we could all continue to function as before with no other disruption (other than surprise) ... but the price level definitely would have been changed: i.e. literally the numbers on the price tags. It wouldn't make the candy bars at 7-11 any more expensive.

    What am I missing here?

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    1. Understand Tom, that it's not Sadowski we;re discussing but Sumner. Sadowski himself says that Sumner could have been more clear. The issue of MOA vs. MOE can lead to some real debates.

      It goes back to the definiton of money. Again, I would recommend you read Sumner himself on this discussion.

      http://www.themoneyillusion.com/?p=23269

      Sadowski said Sumner wasn't clear-just read the quote above:

      ""Sumner is evidently referring to the nominal exchange rate which is correct from a simple unit of account perspective (e.g. the Korean won is about 1000 to the dollar). Personally I think he should have spent more time clearly explaining what he meant by “price level”.



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    2. It may be that I'm the one missing something here Tom. Do you have the link for Woosley. That would help a lot more.

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    3. JP has the best summary of the debates: follow the links there to Woolsey and Glasner. Glasner has his own set of links, mostly to Sumner articles. I'd start with JP though... he's the clearest thinker on this stuff than all of them in my opinion:

      http://jpkoning.blogspot.com/2012/11/discussions-of-medium-of-account-could.html

      http://jpkoning.blogspot.com/2012/11/my-synopsis-of-moe-vs-moa-debate.html

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    4. The link to Woolsey's definitions are in that 2nd one.

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  4. ... and if you instead have stickiness (like we do), then changing M will get P to move EVENTUALLY... in a more or less proportional way but potentially with a lot of pain and disruption to V and Y in between... before they finally settle down again and move according to more "fundamental" market dynamics. That's all I read Sumner as saying.

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    1. Well he certainly believes that, it's just basic monetary neutrality.

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  5. Here's a quote form Marcus Nunes on MOA vs. MOE:

    He says let's talk about a word where there's two kinds of money:

    1. The good kind

    2. The bad kind

    "The good kind is “whole money”. That is, it is both the MoE and MoA. Bad money loses its MoA property, but keeps its MoE property. In that sense you could say, like Scott, that MoA is money´s defining characteristic or “the essence of money”. I would say “that´s good money defining property”

    Bad money reflects a “sickness” in the economic fabric. Usually this sickness is manifested in very high, rising AND uncertain inflation. In those situations people search for “something” to play the role of MoA. That “something” could be gold, but in modern times the dollar is the usual stand in for the MoA."

    http://thefaintofheart.wordpress.com/2012/10/31/two-kinds-of-money/

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  6. Actiually, Tom, I see that you commented on that Nunes post-it was back in 2012.

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  7. Mike, right I'd read that. That was a good article. I still think JP Koning and Woolsey are a lot more clear with their definitions. Have you read JP & Nick's latest? They're both on these issues. JP gives examples from history of UOA and MOE being separate (he touches on MOA too). Now this one should be in your "curious things Sumner has said" post:

    “most money is held for reasons of tax evasion”

    http://www.themoneyillusion.com/?p=23314&cpage=6#comment-275451

    And, BTW, I guess that stuff from Marcus still doesn't help me see your point about what's wrong with Sumner's statements on price level.

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  8. It just seems to me that it's not the price level that's 100 times greater it's the exchange rate. Are the price level and exchange rate the same thing or are they different? Sadowski seems to think that if you are looking at the MOA they are but not if you're looking at MOE.

    Marcus gave an interesting example in Brazil that I thought illustrated the difference between MOA and MOE:

    "On March 1st future president Cardoso, at the time the Finance Minister, introduced a new “MoA”, the “URV” (“Real Unit of Value”). At that date all prices were converted into URV at a stated “exchange rate”. During the next four months, until June 30, everyday a new “exchange rate” between the MoE (at the time called the Cruzeiro Real (CR$)) and 1 URV was posted. While MoE prices were rising MoA prices were stable."

    "The URV was the MoA and prices were quoted in URVs. What happened? Now there was a “stable” MoA. Shopkeepers who felt their URV price, which had been determined freely on March 1st , was “too high”, lowered it. Shopkeepers who thought their URV price was “too low” increased it."

    "On June 30, presuming an “equilibrium” price level in URV had been established (with relative prices having had the time to adjust), the government announced that on July 1st the URV would disappear. The new MoE AND MoA would be called Real and 1 Brazilian Real would equal 1USD. In effect, the exchange rate to the dollar became the anchor of the new currency."

    "Things worked perfectly, so that by August inflation had fallen from almost 50% in June to “just” 2%. There was no recession and no unemployment. Demand for the new “good money” soared and the Central Bank accommodated."

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  9. Mike, that is a good example, and like I say JP has some Medieval examples in his latest, but in Japan and the US the exchange rate between the UOA and the MOE is fixed (I'm going w/ JP's use of UOA here... MOA is unitless, like "gold" or "water.")

    Well it is for the US anyway, not sure about Japan.

    Sumner dreamed up a good one about Zimbabwe (see the JP links I provided above).

    So the exchange rate should be looking at comparisons of value of two UOAs.

    Price level is a number. It tells you nothing about value until you attach a UOA to it. That's how I see it.

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    1. So you agree that the price level is 100 times greater in Japan? What does saying that mean?

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    2. I just think it means the decimal place is two slots to the right essentially and that they have a Yen symbol instead of a $

      Now of course some things in Japan will be truly more expensive in terms of some universal measure... say compared to the price of gold, but price level has to be considered wrt the UOA it's in.

      I probably just don't get the controversy... like I told Greg, I didn't really keep up with all the threads there he had w/ Sumner. And it's quite possible Sumner really did say something stupid and then defended it anyway, but I wasn't that interested... I was more interested in his MOA vs MOE article and his HPE Explained one... I don't know if I agree w/ those, but the point he's trying to make in them doesn't come apart because of any statements he may have made about price levels, IMO. The excerpts I've seen quoted over here don't seem that controversial to me. But maybe I'm missing it. That's why I'm curious how Sadowski would have explained it better. I'd like to see that explanation, to see what I'm missing... but it's really no more than a curiosity to me so I can understand what all the hub-bub is about. Like I say, it's hard to believe it detracts from the broader points he was trying to make.

      BTW, Sandowski & Cullen get into a thread here you might like:

      http://pragcap.com/interest-rates-and-monetary-aggregates-during-the-lesser-depression-part-1/comment-page-1#comment-153932

      http://www.themoneyillusion.com/?p=23578#comment-275463

      Also Bill Woolsey makes a point which Sumner concedes:

      http://www.themoneyillusion.com/?p=23563#comment-275241

      http://pragcap.com/the-future-of-money-is-digital-not-physical/comment-page-1#comment-154249

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    3. Shoot, I mean Sadowski! (not Sandowski... or MR's Sankowski for that matter...)

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  10. Yes I was just looking at the threat-Sadowksi was talking about it at Sumner-he says he got Roche to make an important admission.

    " I had a back and forth with Cullen Roche yesterday that was interesting. It was like pulling teeth but he finally admitted that if I take out a loan in currency and put it in my personal safe it reduces reserves balances by the exact amount of the loan."

    http://www.themoneyillusion.com/?p=23269

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    1. Here's my take on that. I think PKEers are in danger of saying stuff there that borders on not true if they hold to close to the party line... they still have the upper hand in terms of the meaning of "reserves" however. This is how I usually state it:

      Q: Can banks lend reserves?

      A: Absolutely! But only to each other only, since by definition bank reserves are base money (electronic Fed deposits + physical cash) held AT BANKS!

      Q: Can banks lend reserves OUTSIDE the banking system?
      A: See above. By definition, no.

      Q: Can banks lend base money outside the banking system?
      A: Yes, cash advances exist.

      And I think that last point is important... because it puts it in perspective. Let's trace the origin of each dollar bill circulating in the non-bank world back to where it came from... I don't know the answer! I'm not Mark Sadowski... I won't be able to figure it out in 10 min much less 10 hours (I'm getting a mental image of Mark delivering a table showing exactly how each reserve note, by serial number, entered the non-bank private economy), but I'd be willing to wager than mostly it wasn't cash advances... it was people exchanging their existing bank deposits for cash. Does that even matter? Not really... taking the cash out later is like a delayed cash advance.

      I think the main thing to keep in mind is that all our money makes both a debtor and creditor out of two separate parties.

      I think the average Joe on the street imagines all the reserves piled up at banks as:

      1. physical cash. Paper gold, as Sumner says.

      2. Bank equity. They probably don't think "equity" but the idea is that somehow the banks "own" that money outright... not that they have an equal share of liabilities on their balance sheets too. And thus they're just sitting on huge piles of equity that they got for free somehow from the gov and they STILL won't lend them out.

      So saying "banks down loan out reserves" is most effective for this average Joe type.

      It's an interesting question because who really determines how much cash is out there? Well a big part of that decision lies with the bank deposit holders. It's true that the Fed could just refuse to stop selling or even buying back more cash (well, not sure about that latter point, legal wise), but they chose not to restrict the flow of cash in general and thus our ATMs don't run dry.

      Really it all comes down to those cash advances. :D

      I like to look at it like this. Making some big simplifications, and calling the non-bank private sector the "public" we have:

      public's stock of money = L + B + F = deposits + cash

      I explain that here:

      http://brown-blog-5.blogspot.com/2013/08/banking-example-11-all-possible-balance.html

      Now that's a conceptual thing, and I've left out big pieces of the debt (intra-gov, foreign etc), so it probably wouldn't stand up as is to Sadowskian scrutiny. :D

      (I try a 1s stab at making it more realistic in the next two posts... but still not there yet)

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    2. ... Oh, I kind of forgot the point of that last bit. We could rewrite the public's money stock like this:

      public bank deposits (& equivalent) = L + B + F - C
      public's cash C

      L = bank loans
      B = bank held Tsy debt
      F = Fed held Tsy debt
      C = cash

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    3. So how big C is is the public's choice (as long as the Fed plays along... and they always have so far!) provided the amount lies somewhere on the interval [0, L+B+F].

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    4. So what did you think of Sumner's recent piece on physical cash-does he put too much stock in literal cash-is he a 'paper bug?'

      It seems to me the idea of the endogenous money folks at least is that the banks create money and decide how much money there is out there but this is determined by how many creditworthy borrowers there are.

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    5. "It seems to me the idea of the endogenous money folks at least is that the banks create money and decide how much money there is out there but this is determined by how many creditworthy borrowers there are."


      Not to be too much of a wordsmith but I dont think banks "decide" how much money is out there per se I think banks look for profit making opportunities so they are looking, in the end, at how much they can get back from the economy. So they need credit worthy people with reliable income streams that they can tap into. Think of all our incomes as a river flowing to us. Banks see how much they can divert to them.

      When I go to a bank seeking a mortgage what Im really saying is something like this, "I havent saved enough cash to buy this house but I have 4000 a month coming in, of which I can spend 1300 month on a house. How much house can I get for that?" The bank then finds the right house and right time frame for us that allows them to spend 200,000 and receive something more than 200,000 from us over time. They want to maximize the amount over 200,000 as thats their profit. We want to minimize the amount over 200,000 as thats our cost. The more it costs us the more we think we have to sell the house for later.

      So really, I think a better way of understanding what a bank does is tap into OUR income stream. Its our incomes that determine the level of loans and profits. Obviously if our incomes are dropping banks will have to offer different terms to us for us to borrow.

      I like to say then, what WE are borrowing when we borrow is NOT reserves, is NOT someone elses savings but is instead our own future income stream.

      When I want to buy a car or house I have two options if a havent already saved the money to do so, 1) I can save 300/month for 50 months and buy a 15000$ car four years from now or 2) buy the 15,000$ car now but use 300 month for the next 60 months and pay 18,000$ (3000$ of interest to bank) Either way I defer 300$ of present consumption but in one case I get the car now and one I get it later. Getting it now costs more.


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  11. TK for the info Tom.I'm going to delve right in now. I think the larger problem I'm having with the debate over the price level is I don't necessarily understand what it is. According to what I'm reading it seems that the price level can be defined in 4 or 5 different ways.

    http://www.economicswebinstitute.org/glossary/pricel.htm

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